I wasn't trying to make a semantic point, more of a sovereignty or legislative point.
I'm perfectly willing to concede the semantic point: that bag is fake. The legislative one is "does thia have to be a crime?"
Trademark (like most IP rules) are ultimately decided mostly on utility grounds. Does this IP system produce or destroy economic value, and who's value is it producing and destroying.
Maybe China can do without trademarks and patents. Whatever you think about ip laws in general, there is certainly a self interested swing in favour of more liberal if you don't currently own any IP.
This has always been the case. America "stole" IP from Britain during the industrial revolution. China is doing the same now. IP laws are part of the legal doctrine of any country; another Sovereign entity cannot be compelled to follow it legally. So you use other tactics, e.g. membership in the WTO, which gives access to Western markets, to try and force other Sovereign nations to respect those laws.
It is very fascinating. There is a LOT of nuance behind the question of why certain countries manage to industrialize/develop and others fail to. And then answer isn’t obvious or simple. I think this is a nice article about this specific topic: http://foreignpolicy.com/2012/12/06/we-were-pirates-too/
I'm perfectly willing to concede the semantic point: that bag is fake. The legislative one is "does thia have to be a crime?"
Trademark (like most IP rules) are ultimately decided mostly on utility grounds. Does this IP system produce or destroy economic value, and who's value is it producing and destroying.
Maybe China can do without trademarks and patents. Whatever you think about ip laws in general, there is certainly a self interested swing in favour of more liberal if you don't currently own any IP.